Prepare Important Exam with CTPRP Exam Dumps(2024)
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NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?
- A. Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements
- B. Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)
- C. Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties
- D. Change at outsourcer due to M&A
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because a change at outsourcer due to merger and acquisition (M&A) is the least likely indicator to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor. This is because the outsourcer is not the direct vendor of the organization, but rather a third party that the vendor uses to perform some of its services. Therefore, the impact of the change at the outsourcer on the vendor's performance and risk level may not be significant or immediate. However, the other indicators (A, B, and C) are more likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor, as they directly affect the vendor's operations, capabilities, and compliance status. For example:
* A change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties may introduce new risks such as geopolitical, regulatory, or cybersecurity risks that need to be evaluated and mitigated.
* A change in scope of existing work may alter the vendor's access to the organization's data or systems, which may require additional security measures and controls to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information assets.
* A change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements may impose new obligations or standards on the vendor that need to be verified and monitored to ensure compliance and avoid penalties or fines. References:
* How to Conduct a Successful Vendor Risk Assessment in 9 Steps, Case IQ
* Why You Need to Reassess Vendor Risk on an Ongoing Basis, ThirdPartyTrust
* Vendor Assessment and Evaluation Guide, Smartsheet
NEW QUESTION # 65
A set of principles for software development that address the top application security risks and industry web requirements is known as:
- A. Security testing methodology
- B. Application security design standards
- C. Secure code reviews
- D. Secure architecture risk analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Application security design standards are a set of principles for software development that address the top application security risks and industry web requirements. They provide guidance on how to design, develop, and deploy secure applications that meet the security objectives of the organization and the expectations of the customers and regulators. Application security design standards cover topics such as secure design principles, threat modeling, encryption, identity and access management, logging and auditing, coding standards and conventions, safe functions, data handling, error handling, third-party components, and testing and validation.
Application security design standards help developers avoid common security pitfalls, reduce vulnerabilities, and enhance the quality and reliability of the software. Application security design standards also facilitate the alignment of the software development lifecycle with the third-party risk management framework, by ensuring that security requirements are defined, implemented, verified, and maintained throughout the development process. References:
* Fundamental Practices for Secure Software Development
* Secure Coding Practices
* Secure Software Development Best Practices
* Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?
- A. Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous
- B. A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices
- C. Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities
- D. A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security vulnerabilities and security defects are not synonymous, but rather different concepts that relate to the security of software products or services. A security vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in the software that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or data12. A security defect is a mistake or error in the software code that causes the software to behave in an unexpected or incorrect way34. A security defect may or may not lead to a security vulnerability, depending on the context and impact of the defect. For example, a security defect that causes a buffer overflow may result in a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary code on the system. However, a security defect that causes a spelling error in the user interface may not pose a security risk at all.
Security vulnerabilities and security defects have different causes, consequences, and solutions. Security vulnerabilities are often caused by design flaws, logic errors, or insufficient security controls in the software12. Security defects are often caused by poor coding practices, lack of testing, or human mistakes in the software development process34. Security vulnerabilities can have severe consequences for the software users, providers, and stakeholders, such as data breaches, identity theft, fraud, or sabotage12. Security defects can have various consequences for the software functionality, performance, or usability, such as crashes, glitches, or bugs34. Security vulnerabilities require proactive and reactive measures to prevent, detect, and mitigate the potential attacks, such as security testing, patching, monitoring, and incident response12. Security defects require corrective and preventive measures to identify, resolve, and avoid the errors, such as code review, debugging, refactoring, and quality assurance34.
Therefore, the statement that security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous is FALSE. They are distinct but related aspects of software security that require different approaches and techniques to address them. References: 1: What is a Software Vulnerability? | Veracode 2: Software Security: differences between vulnerabilities and Defects 3: What is a Software Defect? - Definition from Techopedia 4: Are vulnerabilities discovered and resolved like other defects? - Springer
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which statement is FALSE regarding background check requirements for vendors or service providers?
- A. Background check requirements may differ based on level of authority, risk, or job role
- B. Background check requirements are not applicable for vendors or service providers based outside the United States
- C. Background checks should be performed prior to employment and may be updated after employment based upon criteria in HR policies
- D. Background check requirements should be applied to employees, contract workers and temporary workers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Background check requirements are applicable for vendors or service providers based outside the United States, as well as those based within the country. According to the Shared Assessments Program, background checks are a key component of third-party risk management and should be conducted for all third parties that have access to sensitive data, systems, or facilities, regardless of their location1. The FCRA also applies to background checks performed by U.S. employers on foreign nationals who work outside the U.S. for a
U.S. employer or its affiliates2. Therefore, statement A is false and the correct answer is A. References:
* Shared Assessments Program: Third Party Risk Management Fundamentals
* Background Checks for Contractors or Vendors
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes is appropriate due to limitations of international or state regulation?
- A. Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results
- B. Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law
- C. Requiring evidence of drug testing
- D. Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites
Answer: B
Explanation:
it is the most appropriate and compliant method of validating pre-employment screening attributes among the given options. Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law means that the organization respects the legal and regulatory boundaries of different jurisdictions and does not impose unnecessary or unlawful requirements on its third parties. It also ensures that the organization obtains relevant and reliable information about the third parties' screening processes and outcomes, which can help assess their suitability and risk level.
The other options are incorrect because they are either inappropriate or ineffective methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes. Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites (A) is inappropriate because it may violate the privacy and data protection rights of the third parties and their employees, as well as expose the organization to potential bias and discrimination claims. Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results (B) is ineffective because it may not reflect the actual screening attributes of the third parties, as they may have different screening criteria, standards, and methods than the organization. Requiring evidence of drug testing is inappropriate because it may not be relevant or necessary for the nature and scope of the third-party relationship, and it may also conflict with the laws and regulations of different jurisdictions that prohibit or limit such testing. References:
https://www.onetrust.com/blog/third-party-risk-management/
NEW QUESTION # 69
All of the following processes are components of controls evaluation in the Third Party Risk Assessment process EXCEPT:
- A. Scoping the assessment based on identified risk factors
- B. Analyzing assessment results to identify and report risk
- C. Reviewing compliance artifacts for the presence of control attributes
- D. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Controls evaluation is the process of verifying and validating the effectiveness of the controls implemented by the third party to mitigate the identified risks. It involves reviewing the evidence provided by the third party, such as policies, procedures, certifications, attestations, or test results, to determine if the controls are adequate, consistent, and compliant with the requirements and standards of the organization. Controls evaluation also involves analyzing the assessment results to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues in the third party's controls, and reporting the findings and recommendations to the relevant stakeholders.
Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is not a component of controls evaluation, but rather a component of contract management. Contract management is the process of establishing, maintaining, and enforcing the contractual agreements between the organization and the third party. It involves defining the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both parties, as well as the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance measurement, risk management, dispute resolution, and termination.
Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is a key aspect of contract management, as it allows the organization to monitor and verify the third party's compliance with the contract and the applicable regulations and standards. It also enables the organization to conduct independent audits or assessments of the third party's controls, processes, and performance, and to request remediation actions if necessary. References:
* 1: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a comprehensive guide for Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) candidates, which covers the core concepts and best practices of third party risk management, including controls evaluation and contract management.
* 2: UpGuard, a platform for cybersecurity and third party risk management, provides a detailed overview of the best practices for third party risk assessment, which includes the steps and criteria for evaluating the controls of third parties.
* 3: Deloitte, a global professional services firm, offers an end-to-end managed service for third party risk management, which includes controls evaluation and contract management as key components of the service.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
- A. Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior
"notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence - B. Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in "order to move the processing back to an approved country
- C. inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy
- D. Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment
Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is the best approach because it aligns with the principles of third-party risk management, which include ensuring compliance with company policies, contractual obligations, and regulatory requirements. By asking the vendor to replace the subcontractor, the company is exercising its right to terminate or modify the relationship if the vendor fails to meet the agreed-upon standards or poses unacceptable risks. This also minimizes the potential impact of the vendor's non-compliance on the company's reputation, operations, and data security. The other options are less effective because they either ignore the issue, compromise the company's policy, or rely on the vendor's self-assessment without verification. References:
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 3: Program Governance, Section 3.2: Policies and Procedures, p. 14
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 4: Program Components, Section 4.3: Contracting, p. 24
* Third Party Risk Management Framework, Module 5: Program Implementation, Section 5.2: Ongoing Monitoring, p. 32
* Best-Practices Guidance for Third-Party Risk, Section: Defend Against Privileged User Risks, p. 2
* Five Best Practices to Manage and Control Third-Party Risk, Section: Best Practices for Controlling Third-Party Vendor Risks, p. 3
NEW QUESTION # 71
The BEST time in the SDLC process for an application service provider to perform Threat Modeling analysis is:
- A. After the application vulnerability or penetration test is completed
- B. Prior to the execution of a contract with each client
- C. After testing and before the deployment of the final code into production
- D. Before the application design and development activities begin
Answer: D
Explanation:
Threat modeling is a core element of the Microsoft Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) and a structured approach to identify, quantify, and address the security risks associated with an application12. Threat modeling helps to shape the application's design, meet the security objectives, and reduce risk1. The best time to perform threat modeling analysis is before the application design and development activities begin, as this allows the application service provider to:
* Communicate about the security design of their systems1.
* Analyze the design for potential security issues using a proven methodology1.
* Suggest and manage mitigations for security issues1.
* Incorporate security requirements into the design2.
* Avoid costly rework or redesign later in the SDLC2.
* Identify the most critical and relevant threats to focus on2. References: 1: Microsoft Security Development Lifecycle Threat Modelling1 2: Threat Modeling Process | OWASP Foundation2
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which statement BEST describes the use of risk based decisioning in prioritizing gaps identified at a critical vendor when defining the corrective action plan?
- A. The assessor decided that the critical gaps should be discussed in the closing meeting so that the vendor can begin to implement corrective actions immediately
- B. The assessor determined that all gaps should be logged and communicated that if the gaps were corrected immediately they would not need to be included in the findings report
- C. The assessor determined that gaps should be analyzed, documented, reviewed for compensating controls, and submitted to the business owner to approve risk treatment plan
- D. The assessor concluded that all gaps should be logged and treated as high severity findings since the assessment was performed on a critical vendor
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, risk based decisioning is the process of applying risk criteria to prioritize and address the gaps identified during a third-party risk assessment1. The assessor should analyze the gaps based on the impact, likelihood, and urgency of the risk, and document the findings and recommendations in a report. The assessor should also review the existing or proposed compensating controls that could mitigate the risk, and submit the report to the business owner for approval of the risk treatment plan. The risk treatment plan could include accepting, transferring, avoiding, or reducing the risk, depending on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization1.
The other statements do not reflect the best use of risk based decisioning, as they either ignore the risk analysis and documentation process, or apply a uniform or arbitrary approach to prioritizing and addressing the gaps. The assessor should not decide or conclude on the risk treatment plan without consulting the business owner, as the business owner is ultimately responsible for the third-party relationship and the risk management decisions1. The assessor should also not communicate that the gaps would not be included in the report if they were corrected immediately, as this could compromise the integrity and transparency of the assessment process and the report2.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, pages 29-30,
33-34
* 2: Third-Party Risk Management: Final Interagency Guidance, page 10
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which statement is FALSE regarding the methods of measuring third party risk?
- A. Assessing risk impact requires an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends to analyze and predict the potential of a particular event happening
- B. Risk can be quantified by calculating the severity of impact and likelihood of occurrence
- C. Risk likelihood or probability is a critical element in quantifying inherent or residual risk
- D. Risk can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively
Answer: A
Explanation:
This statement is false because assessing risk impact does not require an analysis of prior events, frequency of occurrence, and external trends. These factors are relevant for assessing risk likelihood or probability, not impact. Risk impact is the potential consequence or damage that a risk event may cause to the organization or its stakeholders. Risk impact can be measured qualitatively (e.g., high, medium, low) or quantitatively (e.g., monetary value, percentage of revenue, number of customers affected). To assess risk impact, the organization needs to consider the nature and scope of the risk, the potential harm or loss, and the sensitivity or tolerance of the organization or its stakeholders to the risk. References:
* How to Manage and Measure Third-Party Risk, OneTrust Blog
* Third-party risk, Deloitte
* Assessing Risks in Third Parties, ERM - Enterprise Risk Management Initiative
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following topics is LEAST important when evaluating a service provider's Security and Privacy Awareness Program?
- A. Training on acceptable use and data safeguards based on organization's policies
- B. Training on whistleblower compliance issue reporting mechanisms
- C. Training that is designed based on role, job scope, or level of access
- D. Training on phishing and social engineering risks and expected actions for employees and contractors
Answer: B
Explanation:
While whistleblower compliance issue reporting mechanisms are important for ensuring ethical conduct and accountability within an organization, they are not directly related to the security and privacy awareness of the service provider's employees and contractors. The other topics are more relevant for assessing the service provider's ability to protect the organization's sensitive data and systems from external and internal threats, such as phishing, social engineering, unauthorized access, data breaches, etc. Therefore, B is the least important topic when evaluating a service provider's Security and Privacy Awareness Program. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 43, section 4.2.3: Security and Privacy Awareness Program
* Third-Party Security: 8 Steps To Assessing Risks And Protecting Your Ecosystem, step 4: Evaluate the vendor's security awareness and training program
* What Is Third-Party Risk Management, section: How to Implement a Third-Party Risk Management Program, bullet point: Security and privacy awareness training
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?
- A. Conducting unannounced checks an an ac-hac basis
- B. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events
- C. Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards
- D. Providing a checklist for self-assessment
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, physical security compliance is the process of ensuring that the physical assets and personnel of an organization are protected from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or harm1. Physical security compliance can be achieved by implementing various measures, such as locks, alarms, cameras, guards, fences, badges, etc. However, these measures need to be regularly monitored, tested, and verified to ensure their effectiveness and alignment with the defined standards and policies2. Therefore, maintaining a standardized schedule for confirming controls to defined standards demonstrates a greater maturity of physical security compliance, as it indicates a proactive and consistent approach to assessing and improving the physical security posture of an organization3.
The other options do not reflect a high level of physical security compliance maturity, as they either rely on reactive or ad hoc methods, or lack sufficient verification and validation mechanisms. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events may indicate a lack of preventive and predictive measures, as well as a dependency on external or internal incidents to trigger the inspections.
Providing a checklist for self-assessment may indicate a lack of independent and objective evaluation, as well as a potential for bias or error in the self-assessment process. Conducting unannounced checks on an ad hoc basis may indicate a lack of planning and coordination, as well as a potential for disruption or inconsistency in the checks.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 24
* 2: Physical Security: Planning, Measures & Examples + PDF - Avigilon
* 3: Security Maturity Models: Levels, Assessment, and Benefits
* [4]: Best Practices for Planning and Managing Physical Security Resources - CISA, page 10
* [5]: Self-Assessment vs. Independent Assessment: What's the Difference? | Linford & Company LLP
* [6]: The Pros and Cons of Unannounced Audits | NQA
NEW QUESTION # 76
When defining third party requirements for transmitting Pll, which factors provide stranger controls?
- A. Full disk encryption and backup
- B. Strength of encryption cipher and authentication method
- C. Available bandwidth and redundancy
- D. Logging and monitoring
Answer: B
Explanation:
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual, such as name, address, email, phone number, social security number, etc. PII is subject to various legal and regulatory requirements, such as the GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, and others, depending on the industry and jurisdiction. PII also poses significant security and privacy risks, as it can be exploited by malicious actors for identity theft, fraud, phishing, or other cyberattacks. Therefore, organizations that collect, store, process, or transmit PII must implement appropriate safeguards to protect it from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss.
One of the key safeguards for PII protection is encryption, which is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption ensures that only authorized parties who have the key can access the original data. Encryption can be applied to data at rest (stored on a device or a server) or data in transit (moving across a network or the internet). Encryption can also be symmetric (using the same key for encryption and decryption) or asymmetric (using a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption).
Another key safeguard for PII protection is authentication, which is the process of verifying the identity of a user or a system that requests access to data. Authentication ensures that only legitimate and authorized parties can access the data. Authentication can be based on something the user knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user has (such as a token or a smart card), something the user is (such as a fingerprint or a face scan), or a combination of these factors. Authentication can also be enhanced by using additional methods, such as one-time passwords, challenge-response questions, or multi-factor authentication.
When defining third party requirements for transmitting PII, the factors that provide stronger controls are the strength of encryption cipher and authentication method. These factors determine how secure and reliable the data transmission is, and how resistant it is to potential attacks or breaches. The strength of encryption cipher refers to the algorithm and the key size used to encrypt the data. The stronger the cipher, the more difficult it is to break or crack the encryption. The strength of authentication method refers to the type and the number of factors used to verify the identity of the user or the system. The stronger the authentication method, the more difficult it is to impersonate or compromise the user or the system.
The other factors, such as full disk encryption and backup, available bandwidth and redundancy, and logging and monitoring, are also important for PII protection, but they do not directly affect the data transmission process. Full disk encryption and backup are relevant for data at rest, not data in transit. They provide protection in case of device theft, loss, or damage, but they do not prevent data interception or modification during transmission. Available bandwidth and redundancy are relevant for data availability and performance, not data security and privacy. They ensure that the data transmission is fast and reliable, but they do not prevent data exposure or corruption during transmission. Logging and monitoring are relevant for data audit and compliance, not data encryption and authentication. They provide visibility and accountability for the data transmission activities, but they do not prevent data access or misuse during transmission. References:
* : What is Data Encryption? | Definition and Examples | Imperva
* : What is Authentication? | Definition and Examples | Imperva
* : Personally Identifiable Information (PII) - Imperva
* : Data Protection - Shared Assessments
NEW QUESTION # 77
The primary disadvantage of Single Sign-On (SSO) access control is:
- A. Vendors must develop multiple methods to integrate system access adding cost and complexity
- B. A single password is easier to guess and be exploited
- C. Users store multiple passwords in a single repository limiting the ability to change the password
- D. The impact of a compromise of the end-user credential that provides access to multiple systems is greater
Answer: D
Explanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) is a convenient and efficient way of authenticating users across multiple applications and platforms with a single set of credentials. However, it also poses some security risks and challenges that need to be considered and addressed. One of the main disadvantages of SSO is that it creates a single point of failure and a high-value target for attackers. If an end-user credential is compromised, the attacker can gain access to all the systems and resources that the user is authorized to access, potentially causing significant damage and data breaches. Therefore, SSO requires strong security measures to protect the user credentials, such as encryption, multifactor authentication, password policies, and monitoring. Additionally, SSO users need to be aware of the risks and follow best practices to safeguard their credentials, such as using strong and unique passwords, changing them regularly, and avoiding phishing and social engineering attacks.
References:
* 1: What are the disadvantages of single sign-on authentication? - Information Security Stack Exchange
* 2: Single Sign-On Disadvantages: 6 Advantages and Disadvantages [What You Need to Know] - Mostly Blogging
* 3: SSO Security Risks: The Drawbacks of SSO (And What Can You Do About it) - Zluri
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which statement provides the BEST description of inherent risk?
- A. inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can incur when there is an absence of controls
- B. Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists with all of the necessary controls in place
- C. Inherent risk is the level of risk triggered by outsourcing & product or service
- D. Inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can accept based on their risk tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Inherent risk refers to the level of risk that exists in the absence of any controls or mitigation measures. It represents the natural exposure to risk in operations, transactions, or activities without considering the effectiveness of any risk management practices. In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM), inherent risk assesses the potential for loss or adverse outcomes associated with a third-party relationship before any controls or risk treatments are applied. Understanding inherent risk is crucial for organizations to identify where controls are necessary and to prioritize risk management efforts based on the potential impact and likelihood of different risks. This concept is foundational in risk management frameworks and is used to guide the development and implementation of controls to reduce risk to an acceptable level, aligned with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
References:
* Risk management standards such as ISO 31000 (Risk Management - Guidelines) provide a framework for assessing and managing inherent risks, emphasizing the importance of understanding the baseline level of risk in decision-making processes.
* The "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" by ISACA outlines best practices for assessing inherent risks in third-party relationships, highlighting the need to evaluate the nature and scope of third-party engagements to determine the baseline risk exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Once a vendor questionnaire is received from a vendor what is the MOST important next step when evaluating the responses?
- A. Calculate the total number of findings to rate the effectiveness of the vendor response
- B. Analyze the responses to identify adverse or high priority responses to prioritize controls that should be tested
- C. Update the vender risk registry and vendor inventory with the results in order to complete the assessment
- D. Document your analysis and provide confirmation to the business unit regarding receipt of the questionnaire
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important next step after receiving a vendor questionnaire is to analyze the responses and identify any gaps, issues, or risks that may pose a threat to the organization or its customers. This analysis should be based on the inherent risk profile of the vendor, the criticality of the service or product they provide, and the applicable regulatory and contractual requirements. The analysis should also highlight any adverse or high priority responses that indicate a lack of adequate controls, policies, or procedures on the vendor's part. These responses should be prioritized for further validation, testing, or remediation. The analysis should also document any assumptions, limitations, or dependencies that may affect the accuracy or completeness of the vendor's responses. References:
* Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, Section 4.2.2, page 43
* Third-Party Risk Management: Managing Risk, Section "Assessing and monitoring third-party risk"
* What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide, Section "Third-Party Risk Management Process"
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which statement is NOT an accurate reflection of an organizations requirements within an enterprise information security policy?
- A. Security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes
- B. Security policies should define the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight
- C. Security policies should be organized based upon an accepted control framework
- D. Security policies should have an effective date and date of last review by management
Answer: A
Explanation:
An enterprise information security policy (EISP) is a management-level document that details the organization's philosophy, objectives, and expectations regarding information security. It sets the direction, scope, and tone for all security efforts and provides a framework for developing and implementing security programs and controls. According to the web search results from the search_web tool, some of the key elements of an EISP are:
* A statement of the organization's security vision, mission, and principles that align with its business goals and values123.
* A definition of the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight, governance, and management of information security, including roles and responsibilities of senior executives, security officers, business units, and users123 .
* A specification of the legal and regulatory compliance requirements and obligations that the organization must adhere to, such as data protection, privacy, and breach notification laws123 .
* A description of the scope and applicability of the EISP, including the types of information, systems, and assets that are covered, and the exclusions or exceptions that may apply123 .
* A declaration of the effective date and date of last review by management, as well as the frequency and criteria for reviewing and updating the EISP to ensure its relevance and adequacy123 .
* A statement of the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, and the process for identifying, assessing, and treating information security risks123 .
* A provision of the authority and responsibility for implementing, enforcing, monitoring, and auditing the EISP and its related policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines123 .
* A determination of the access control policy and the rules for granting, revoking, and reviewing access rights and privileges to information, systems, and assets123 .
* An organization of the EISP based on an accepted control framework, such as ISO 27001, NIST SP
800-53, or COBIT, that defines the security domains, objectives, and controls that the organization must implement and maintain123 .
However, option C, a statement that security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes, is not an accurate reflection of an organization's requirements within an EISP. While technology changes may affect the security environment and the threats and vulnerabilities that the organization faces, they are not the only factor that determines the need for changing security policies. Other factors, such as business changes, legal changes, risk changes, audit findings, incident reports, and best practices, may also trigger the need for reviewing and updating security policies. Therefore, option C is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect an organization's requirements within an EISP. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
* 1: What Is The Purpose Of An Enterprise Information Security Policy?
* 2: Enterprise Information Security Policies and Standards
* 3: Key Elements Of An Enterprise Information Security Policy
* : Enterprise Information Security Policy (EISP) - SANS
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?
- A. Testing
- B. Configuration
- C. Log retention
- D. Approvals
Answer: A
Explanation:
In patch management, testing is the most crucial factor when conducting post-cybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications. Proper testing of patches before deployment ensures that they effectively address vulnerabilities without introducing new issues or incompatibilities that could impact system functionality or security. Testing allows organizations to verify that the patch resolves the identified security issue without adversely affecting the system or application's performance. It also helps in identifying potential conflicts with existing configurations or dependencies. Effective testing strategies include regression testing, performance testing, and security testing to ensure comprehensive validation of the patch's effectiveness and safety before widespread deployment. This approach aligns with best practices in patch management, emphasizing the importance of thorough testing to mitigate the risk of unintended consequences and ensure the continued security and stability of systems and applications.
References:
* Industry standards such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) highlight the importance of a systematic approach to managing patches, including the role of testing in assessing the effectiveness and impact of patches.
* Resources like "Patch Management Best Practices" from the Center for Internet Security (CIS) provide guidance on developing and implementing a patch management program that includes rigorous testing procedures to ensure patches are safely and effectively applied.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which of the following is a positive aspect of adhering to a secure SDLC?
- A. Enables the process if system code is managed in different IT silos
- B. A process that forces quality code repositories management
- C. A process that defines and meets both the business requirements and the security requirements
- D. Promotes a "check the box" compliance approach
Answer: C
Explanation:
A secure SDLC is a framework that integrates security best practices and standards throughout the software development life cycle, from planning to deployment and maintenance. A secure SDLC aims to ensure that security is considered and implemented at every stage of the development process, not just as an afterthought or a compliance check. A secure SDLC can help organizations to achieve the following benefits12:
* Reduce the risk of security breaches and incidents by identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities early and continuously
* Improve the quality and reliability of software products by ensuring that they meet both the functional and the security requirements
* Save time and money by avoiding costly rework, remediation, and reputation damage caused by security flaws
* Enhance customer trust and satisfaction by delivering secure and compliant software solutions
* Foster a culture of security awareness and responsibility among developers, testers, and other stakeholders References:
* Secure SDLC | Secure Software Development Life Cycle | Snyk
* What is Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SSDLC )? - GeeksforGeeks
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which type of external event does NOT trigger an organization ta prompt a third party contract provisions review?
- A. Business continuity event
- B. Change in company point of contact
- C. Change in regulations
- D. Data breach/privacy incident
Answer: B
Explanation:
A change in company point of contact does not necessarily trigger an organization to prompt a third party contract provisions review, unless the contract specifically requires such a notification or approval. A change in company point of contact may affect the communication and relationship between the parties, but it does not affect the legal terms and obligations of the contract. However, other types of external events, such as business continuity events, data breaches/privacy incidents, and changes in regulations, may have a significant impact on the performance, compliance, and risk of the contract, and therefore may require a review of the contract provisions to ensure that they are still valid, enforceable, and aligned with the parties' expectations and objectives. For example, a business continuity event may disrupt the delivery of goods or services, a data breach/privacy incident may expose confidential or personal information, and a change in regulations may impose new obligations or liabilities on the parties. These events may trigger clauses such as force majeure, termination, indemnification, or dispute resolution, and may require the parties to renegotiate or amend the contract accordingly. References:
* Third-Party Contract Reviews: Determining Your Best Options
* Third party contracts: best practices for third party paper
* What to Look For When Reviewing Third-Party Contracts
* CTPRP Job Guide
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following actions is an early step when triggering an Information Security Incident Response Program?
- A. Implementing processes for emergency change control approvals
- B. Requiring periodic changes to the vendor's contract for breach notification
- C. Initiating an investigation of the unauthorized disclosure of data
- D. Assessing the vendor's Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for resuming operations
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide1, one of the first steps in responding to an incident is to identify the scope, nature, and source of the incident. This involves gathering evidence, analyzing logs, interviewing witnesses, and performing forensic analysis. The goal is to determine the extent of the compromise, the type of attack, the identity or location of the attacker, and the potential impact on the organization and its stakeholders. This step is essential for containing the incident, mitigating the damage, and preventing further escalation or recurrence. References:
* NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide1, Section 3.2.2 Identification
* Cisco What Is an Incident Response Plan for IT?2, Section 2. Respond
* CrowdStrike Incident Response [Beginner's Guide]3, Section 3. Incident Response Steps
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which cloud deployment model is focused on the management of hardware equipment?
- A. Function as a service
- B. Platform as a service
- C. Software as a service
- D. Infrastructure as a service
Answer: D
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud deployment model that provides users with access to virtualized hardware resources, such as servers, storage, and network devices. Users can install and run their own operating systems and applications on the cloud infrastructure, and have full control over the configuration and management of the hardware equipment. IaaS is suitable for organizations that need high scalability, flexibility, and customization of their cloud environment. IaaS is different from other cloud deployment models, such as function as a service (FaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service (SaaS), which provide users with higher-level services and abstract away the underlying hardware details. References:
* Cloud Infrastructure: 4 Key Components and Deployment Models
* Cloud Deployment Models - GeeksforGeeks
* On-Premises Cloud Deployment Model: Organization-Owned Hardware Explained
NEW QUESTION # 86
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